Masculine and feminine endings

[stormx]

Hi,

can you explain, if possible with examples, the difference between masculine and feminine endings? I have read a theory book that is (at least for me) very confuse on the subject, and it would be great to have some clarification.

For what i understood, a masculine ending actually ends on a metric accented beat (that is, the first one). Is this right?

On the other hand, speaking specifically about piano, does this mean that the ending note of a masculine ending should be REALLY accented (that is, played louder)?

Thanks in advance for your help,

Juan

[franz_]

I don't believe in that theory

[seicinta]

.

[stormx]

I think that only the theory says that masculine endings must be accented on the last note and the feminine endings must be accented on the second to last note, because it depends obviously on the piece, on the style and so on. The composers after Mozart often indicate their intentions in this regard with dynamics or articulation signs.

Example: Beethoven sonatina op. 49,2, second mvt m.4 there is a female ending quarter note-eighth note, marked with a slur and a rest after the eighth note. In m. 8 there is a masculine ending, but this should not be accented and Beethoven did not make an articulation sign because it's on the tonic. If he would like to have an accent he would make a sign like a sforzato, an accent sign, a portato sign etc. But finally it's the form (the phrase) and the harmony who decide.

I hope this helps.

Thanks you very much.

And, what a coincidence, i am right now learning the movement you mentionned from LVB Op.49 nº2 !!

Greetings