I am quite pleased somebody has actually said that at last, Bernhard. I've never thought that keeping one hand steady and varying the other is anything more than a subset of complete rhythmic freedom. Giving it the label "rubato", which has developed an ambiguous meaning anyway, doesn't help an advanced player much less a beginner. There are places for that "one-sided" bending of rhythm, of course; stride and ragtime are two obvious cases. The left usually remains solid while the right does perorations around it. It is actually pretty difficult to learn, judging by the seemingly small number of players who can do it well.John Arpin, in his collected interpretations of Joplin, has shown us that even here, in an idiom often regarded as compusorily metronomic, a total bending of rhythm in both hands can produce musically valid and very exciting results. Granted, he has been subject to heavy criticism, but I for one experienced an opening of the gates when I first heard him. Of course, if you do it unthinkingly it sounds terrible, but so does insensitive variation of any element.Rhythm permits infinite variation just like any other aspect of music. Sadly, I have come to the conclusion that a depressingly large number of otherwise top-flight executants have no intuitive grasp of it at all, mostly regarding it as a regularly arranged matrix of hooks on which the purportedly more important elements of melody and harmony can be hung. Exactly how this unfortunate state can be avoided during formative years lies with good teachers such as you. I haven't the faintest idea; I'm just glad that I dodged the trap myself.
If one takes a composition, implements it in MIDI strictly according to the score and then compares it with a pianist's version, there will be differences. In the case of Joplin rags, no tempo variations were marked and Joplin's tempo notes alluded to marches, as in "Slow March Time". Instrumental differences aside, which is to be preferred: the rendition that keeps the time in the score or that which does not? With all due respect to pianists' considerable abilities and popular successes, I've found Arpin's "Euphonic Sounds" to sound rushed in spots, as do parts of Rifkin's "Bethena". But, I might never have arrived at this conclusion had I not heard the corresponding MIDI, which revealed the composer's intentions. If I understand microtime correctly, it could be easily implemented in MIDI by modification of the start time and duration of notes in a measure, while conserving their sum to the number of beats indicated in the time signature. So, with or without microtime doesn't arise solely from a technology limitation. If one then assumes at least a modest transcriptional ability of the composer, which is justified for Joplin, Liszt, and others by their demonstrated abilities to transcribe for piano train collisions, profane exclamations, and the flight of angels, how can one logically justify departures from the notated rhythms as artistic? Or that the composer was so careless with the score that it prevented a realization of the intended music? Composers can use phrasing to indicate microtime (or sometimes just legato) - so there is something to indicate it - should it be called for. Nancarrow is extreme, but used multiple time signatures. If you can play an existing piece and put your name on it, I'm willing to accept it as your interpretation. And some analysis of what gives it its unique sound might be called for as a guide for others. But, compare a composer's approach: In the 1924 Warner Bros. edition of "Rhapsody in Blue" for 2 pianos and 4 hands, there is a forward that describes the rhythmic variations in the music. They adhere to an objective and rational device: in consecutive groups of 4 notes, every third one is accented. This sort of variation is designed and rational, so it's a high level construct. In contrast, microtime lacks an objective measure that distinguishes it from simply not keeping good time or whether it's rushed vs. inspired. I guess that the only thing I'm trying to say is that such things as microtime haven't led me to a better understanding of the composer's sonic version of the score, which I admit a desire to discover or create if it doesn't already exist.Regards,Jim Ritchie
In the case of compositions written after 1800, using notation as the directions for performance (e.g. works by Berlioz, Richard Strauss and others), the primary consideration is to describe as precisely as possible how the written work is supposed to sound; only when these notes are precisely performed, only when all instructions are observed, does the music emerge.
Maybe this should become the norm:Composer ---> Disklavier ---> midi ----> perfect performance.(Unfortunately, most composers these days cannot paly the disklavier with the necessary competence )
I disagree that composers are the authority for the works they compose.
A broader approach to contrast is understanding perception because it all falls under how we percieve information and how our minds will extrapolate, interpret, and finally predict what will come next....<snipped>
In general, music prior to about 1800 is notated according to the work-principle and thereafter as a direction for performance.
...there are several deviations: for example, as early as the 16 and 17th centuries, the tablatures (finger notations) for certain instruments are strictly directions for playing. ... This is an extreme example of notation as direction for performance."