Chopin made it quite clear it was the timing of arpeggios not their joining that was most important. '...he preferred that the notes should at first be disconnected, rather than that the hand should alter its normal position.' Eigeldinger pg 37
Chopin's instruction of legato, however, does refer specifically to this etude.
...as does pedal. From your reasoning you'd have to ask why he'd put both in.
it would sound like a big fart ....
it would sound like a big fart if you did all the legato with the pedal. And since he wrote legato, that's probably not the sound he was after...
Well, he did indicate pedal throughout - you must have rather sensitive ears (or nose?).
But where does he indicate to do the legato only with the pedal? Perhaps you have access to a secret Urtext that can shed light on this burning question
And where does he indicate otherwise? By legato Chopin is not stipulating a technique, he's stipulating a sonority. The only evidence technique wise is the Eigeldinger quote I posted above.
Well I haven't read Eigeldinger's book yet, but in your quote above he says "at first"...so that's just a practice phase I suppose.
So, the OP isn't practicing?
To play this piece well the wrist should be flexible enough to maneuver wide spans in a sempre legato manner.
Ah, I finally found the part about pedaling (I though they didn't even put it on the book!!):So, here you go!"Use the pedal with the greatest economy"He never told his pupils to use pedal, since he didn't want them to overuse it."many passages are best simply without use of either pedal"
That's not the only evidence. Neither is it relevant evidence at all- considering it's not in reference to the Etude. Evidence which does relate is the marking of "legato"- in the actual study. You're not counting that as evidence?
As I said earlier - pedal is marked throughoutAs I said above, the mark 'legato' refers to the sonority not the technique.
What do you feel that the legato mark adds, that is not already present from the pedal he gives? Stop repeating yourself and provide your reasoning.
I read your claim that legato refers to sonority. What I did not read was a single piece of evidence to support such staggeringly extreme conjecture stated as if it were fact.
There is no way you can argue that 'legato' is a technical instruction any more than you could cantabile. Pedal indicates how you get that sonority and yes, he could have left the word out but then he wouldn't be explicitly indicating the sonority he wished. There's nothing to argue here.Composers write sonorities not techniques. Performers come up with those.
It's a freaking etude! No, I think he wrote them because it's a pretty neat song.
And if you wrote what I said: USE THE PEDAL IN AN ECONOMICAL WAY. You're probably to lame to know, but pedal doesn't have to be full all the time. You could use 1/4 or 1/2 pedal as well, which is far more economic...
And the evidence he didn't want legato is what?
And the evidence he didn't want an egg for breakfast is what?
When you wish to discount something that clearly points towards something (eg. a marking of legato pointing towards legato),
full pedal and non-legato,
There are many ways of skinning a cat. There is no evidence to support Chopin wanted legato acheived by joining the fingers when the pedal does it for you (as he well knew).
Other than the instruction "legato". Repeating unsubstantiated conjecture that (in your unsubstantiated opinion) he meant the opposite of what he asked for,
Of course he didn't! He wanted legato. But legato is not neccessarily a technique, it's primarily a sonority.
You didn't deal with my point.
I'm not going to get drawn into trashing this thread - I know you're all too happy to. I've made my point.