I'm sorry if you do not give me a specific example to study then it is vague. If it is all open and easy to determine then it should be easy to take one single phrase of specific music and analyze how each does it EXACTLY. My argument is that both are not 100% different with no similarities, this in turn highlights the fact that a teacher may learn many methods of teaching and be able to understand them because there is a connection between all of them.
All I asked for is that if it is so clear cut that they are totally different then it should be very simple to take a SPECIFIC example, a phrase of music and show how different they are and how they have no connection to each other. If you do not want to give an exact example and rather maintain generalisations then I don't mind at all, it is just very vague.
There is no need to prove that they have similarities for several reasons. I know they both are talking about piano, the same instrument. They both are talking about the same physical body that deals with playing the piano. They might have a different spin on how to use their body exactly but each are still talking about the same subject. Thus they unavoidably are related to one another because they are both talking about the same subject.
I suggest that you look up the definition of vague.
Stating that something holds true for EVERYTHING within a clearly defined set (eg. loud chords) is not vague but the polar opposite- ie explicit. I have been specific to the sheer width of applicability.
Given how spectacularly naive a person would have to be to sincerely believe that there are no direct contradictions between different schools of teaching, do you seriously want to keep playing devil's advocate on this ridiculous issue?
If they are 100% different it needs to be proven. It is like saying, Geometry and Trigonometry are 100% different from each other, it is not true because they are on the same subject of Mathematics. y know.
The same can be said about what is discussed in the link I gave you a couple of posts earlier (reply # 143), but you rejected it right away.Paul
I'll make a final response. Nobody said 100% different.
If it is not for specific situations then one has to question is the movement in one school TOTALLY absent from the other for other situations? You will find it is not.
I did not reject it, I am just saying it does not satisfy my requirement to see a specific example with the two schools of thought describing how they would exactly do it. They instead only talk generally thus leaves it riddled with argument and not constructive specific observations of each others method or their own with a given contextual example.
I don't ever "only support" with my fingers for loud chords. I always strive to move them- which many arm-weight teachers say not to do. I also regularly avoid any arm pressure whatsoever. That's the thing about opposites- they are mutually exclusive. There's no such thing as doing it both ways in a single situation.
One thing one should NEVER do in a discussion is assume that one's opponent is stupid. If you had read the debate in the link, you would have known that several pieces are mentioned specifically. Paul
They do not speak about specific bars, I did a search for it and saw nothing. They talk about general use of elements but put none of it into context with an actual phrase of music.
There are many different types of pianists and hands types. There is never a single way to do something and thus one may play something in many different ways and produce the same result. What is comfortable and effective for you might not be for someone else as teachers you need to be sensitive to those needs and thus never have the perception that there is only a single way to execute something.
Your are merely evading the real subject under discussion because you have no arguments. I'm out.Paul
I refer you to the plethora of proceeding posts in which you argued otherwise. This is extremely silly....
Well lets end it there then shall we?It does go to show that indeed schools in disagreement with one another do not argue in a precise way and rather discuss generalized concepts without looking at many specific situations. Proper investigation requires application of knowledge not just talking in theory.
I wanted specifics this link provided none of that, so it is interesting to read but doesn't satisfy my need. If they where serious about discussing technique they would also video tape their movements, how can you 100% describe technique in words? It is just not possible and extremely clumsy.
Do you also feel it's necessary to cite a specific chord in a specific piece of music, to prove that the piano is played with the hands rather than the feet? Funnily enough, widely applicable principles tend to be more useful for "application of knowledge" than singular examples from specific pieces.
Citing a single specific chord is useless, I would like a phrase for context. A single chord on its own tells us nothing.
I think we've exposed quite how little interest you have in discussing piano technique.
Either upload some videos or stop wasting the time
The hypocrisy involved in that paragraph is off the radar...
A performer can never create a musical impression from the very first chord of a piece? I severely beg to differ. The very first chord of a great pianist's recital can be extremely revealing.
It is only revealing because of what comes after it, alone it is meaningless.
A pianist can make a profound effect with the very first chord of the chopin first scherzo. A chord is nothing on it's own.
Or perhaps you're sincerely saying you could not detect a worthy difference if I used some faeces to depress the chord, with no control over the voicing?
It's all very well realising that there's a big picture, but that doesn't nullify the role of detail. Musical intelligence involves both small scale issues and bigger scale ones.
These two sentences seem to be in contradiction.No.This is smokes and mirrors I feel. One chord still doesn't tell us anything, thus I also believe that any generalizations of schools of though on technique using a single chord to reveal their stance is also useless. We need musical context to understand what is being said.
Wow ok. I never heard of piano fecal technique.A single chord is nothing if there is nothing to follow it.
Considering that doing a good job of the first chord of the first scherzo neither eradicates the chance to follow on not eradicates what effect that chord alone has on the listener, it's not nothing.
Do you sincerely believe that different pianists could not have a different effect on the listeners if they really could only play that one chord?
if so, you're badly underestimating what scope lies in a single chord.
Horowitz and richter could terrify with that one chord.
You're beginning to sound like this is a second opinion, rather than one you have thought through with your own mind.
I have already said one chord is useless. I am confident that it is unintelligent to waste time on looking at a single chord out of context to the music.
Well i am repeating it is useless to talk about one chord as much as your insistence to talk about it. I am afraid you are bias in understanding the emotion of a chord for a given piece because no piece is simply one chord and you know what comes after it.
What i say is 100% true because it is my own stance.
Holy Cow... are you guys arguing about the "arm weight" school again?
It is my own stance so unless you are me you cannot know if it is truly what I believe or not. Thus you must admit that my stance is 100% truely mine. Not that hard to understand.
Another straw man? I used a counterexample to disprove the idea that a lone chord cannot contain art. I don't doubt that you believe it, but am simply curious as to why you cannot see that the counter examples disprove it.
BTW -- One note or one chord really proves nothing technically, since you can play it in any number of ways and produce similar sound results, though the mechanics used may or may not be feasible for more complex playing of real piano literature.
One out of seven talks about single notes. I wonder what that means.
Two out of seven talks about single instance notes. I wonder what that means.
The argument we were having was that from a single chord you can clearly define the contrasts between schools of thought when it comes to learning the piano. In fact a phrase of music is important to understand it. A snogs chord in a piece is meaningless if it has nothing to follow it, so how that first chord is payed must take into consideration the rest that follows. The first chord does not 100% set the entire emotion for the entire piece thus putting a huge amount of attention on a single chord out of context to an entire phrase seems unnecessary and very unintelligent.
The more you stress the lack of intelligence of your opponents, the more you discredit yourself. You seem to read diagonally and everything selectively and out of context. I tried to immitate Richter's first chord for the fun of it and I had to make certain physical adjustments to get exactly the same effect. How is that meaningless when one is in search of sound?Paul