Why the need for a post simply to state that another hand may play the note the other hand is supposed to play???Seriously??? I've played this piece before and it's perfectly playable exactly as Liszt notated it.
Have you thought that there may have been a deliberate reason that Liszt didn't write it that way???
if there was a way to simplify the opening of the Liszt 1st concerto by redistributing it, would you? Pretty sure no one would say yes.
Looking at the music, on a similar vein, what about changing the hands for the arpeggios? I noticed that in a lot of places, the right hand is just playing 3 notes of the arpeggio, when it seems like it would be easier to have the right hand play 4 to make it easier on the left hand (since it's the left hand that's moving far away and thus needs more time)