I've been trying to learn more music theory in my on going search for the knowledge and skills that will allow me to compose my own music, I recently started reading a book about chords, melodic lines and the like.
In one of the very first exercises I got stumped, this is actually quite embarrassing because I'm sure the logic behind this all is very much obvious.

It says in the book that for a simple melody I should take one chord tone to put at the beginning of each beat and to limit my on-the-beat choices to either the Rt or 3rd. The scale is on G naturally because of the one #.
Then it puts as root tone E ... what the hell?
VI is C, which would make sense is the scale was in E to start with.
II is A, when I was thinking I've made sense out of this the rug is pull under my feet.
Could someone please enlighten me on what is going on here? I really doubt the author is mistaken, I'm most likely to ignorant and dunderhead to grasp what is going on here...
Regards