Interpretation Across Schools of Pianism

[johannesbrahms]

I've been reading a lot lately about the different schools of piano playing and how each "specialized" in certain parts of the repertoire. For instance, the French school with its basis in clarity and finger technique lent itself to the French repertoire, but a pianist with such a technique would be ill-suited to interpreting the German composers. Likewise, the approach of the Germans would fail to capture the essence of Tchaikovsky or Rachmaninoff. The Russians would in turn over-emotionalize French music and fail to exercise the necessary careful restraint characteristic of the French repertoire. (I'm generalizing for the sake of argument.)

I have several questions. Please assume that we are talking about, say, 1875-1925 (arbitrary numbers chosen for the sake of argument), when such schools still existed and pianism had not yet become homogenized.

1. Do you think that nationality in general affects one's interpretive ability or leanings regarding repertoire?

2. Do you think that these specific schools of technique affect interpretation of composers from "opposing" schools? (In other words, will someone with a "French" technique be a lesser interpreter of Beethoven or Brahms than someone with a "German" technique?)

3. Could, for example, an American or Englishman ever become as great an interpreter of Beethoven as a German? (For example, Schnabel, Backhaus, etc.)

If you have any thoughts not covered under these questions, please share. (Please avoid the "you're stupid for asking such a question" type of response that can be observed elsewhere on the internet. It's just rude and pointless. Also, please note that I do not necessarily share the opinions or theories I am asking about.)

[rachmaninoff_forever]

I understand what you're trying to say but I think you could make a better title

Cause nationality doesn't automatically mean you're gonna play in the style of the nationality you identify with