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Topic: Modulating without modulatory chord (Read 1458 times)

theholygideons

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Modulating without modulatory chord

on: October 26, 2020, 06:07:46 AM

I'm analyzing the prelude in c sharp major from the well tempered klavier. Can someone explain how bach modulates without using any chords with the leading tone?

https://i.imgur.com/kFiruFz.png (here's the picture larger)

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klavieronin

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Re: Modulating without modulatory chord

Reply #1 on: October 26, 2020, 07:53:06 AM

There are, of course, different ways to analyse a piece of music but to me the modulations aren't happening where you have circled. The first one, into the dominant key (G#), strictly speaking doesn't happen until bars 14-15 with a V7 - I cadence (the F double sharp is the leading tone). The next, into d#, is at bar 22-23, again a V - i cadence (the C double sharp is the leading tone). Hope that helps.

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theholygideons

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Re: Modulating without modulatory chord

Reply #2 on: October 27, 2020, 06:52:45 AM

How come, if he hasn't modulated to d sharp minor yet in bar 16, he already introduces f sharp and b natural in bar 16 and g sharp in bar 18, which are not in the previous key, g sharp major, but in the key d sharp minor? Are you saying that these are all chromatic notes?

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brogers70

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Re: Modulating without modulatory chord

Reply #3 on: October 27, 2020, 11:19:19 AM

Quote from: theholygideons on October 27, 2020, 06:52:45 AM

How come, if he hasn't modulated to d sharp minor yet in bar 16, he already introduces f sharp and b natural in bar 16 and g sharp in bar 18, which are not in the previous key, g sharp major, but in the key d sharp minor? Are you saying that these are all chromatic notes?

I would say, yes, those are just chromatic notes; they are indeed setting the stage for a modulation, but you don't know that yet. For a new key to be established, you need a clear cadence in the new key. So I would not call the modulation until the V-I or V-i cadences that klavieronin identified above.

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dw4rn

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Re: Modulating without modulatory chord

Reply #4 on: October 27, 2020, 11:21:00 AM

I'm not sure I know exactly what you mean by "modulatory chord" or "chords with the leading tone". Are you referring to the use of a "pivot" chord to somehow smooth the change from one key to another? In that case, I would say that these are not always needed, and that this is far from the only example where a composer engages in a much more straightforward juxtaposition of keys.

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theholygideons

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Re: Modulating without modulatory chord

Reply #5 on: October 27, 2020, 11:59:33 AM

My understanding is that a modulation commonly employs a chord common to both keys followed by a modulatory chord with the leading tone. In the example I gave, I thought that the latter was missing. Now, it seems, owing to the input of others, that the modulation occurs later than I thought.

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Topic: Modulating without modulatory chord (Read 1458 times)

theholygideons

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