Alkan Prelude no.1 op.39

[00range]

Question on Bar 15...



The piece is in F minor, does the double flat take into account that the B is already flat, making it an A flat? Or, is it simply double flatted, making the note an A? What is the general rule on this sort of thing?

Also, this is the first bar in which the third note is not tied to the fourth:



Is this an editting mistake, or is it played like this?

Thanks for the help.

[sissco]

The b is there an "A".....

I think that other part is an mistake but i could be wrong...(sorry for my english, i cant explain the first thing better than now in english )

[jamie_liszt]

The B double flat is A as he said above, i don't know if theres any mistakes because i dont know the piece well

[00range]

So, the rule would be, then, that you disregard the piece's key signature when a note is double flatted or sharped?

Thanks.

[leahcim]

So, the rule would be, then, that you disregard the piece's key signature when a note is double flatted or sharped?

Yes, but you ask in a way that might suggest you think this is a rule that would make it different from a "normal" # or b sign?

If so, then it isn't afaict.

You don't regard the key sig for any note that's explicity marked with a #, b or a double-sharp / flat or natural sign.

[BoliverAllmon]

if that is the only measure with the tie missing then I would say it is a mistake. could be wrong though.

[00range]

Yes, but you ask in a way that might suggest you think this is a rule that would make it different from a "normal" # or b sign?

If so, then it isn't afaict.

You don't regard the key sig for any note that's explicity marked with a #, b or a double-sharp / flat or natural sign.

Yes, my ignorance shows. I simply didn't know; thanks for the clarification.