Slurs marks questions

[stormx]

Hi,

i have a simple question regarding the slur mark.
I know it is used to indicate both a legato play and to englobe a musical phrase. But i have the following doubt:

Let supose you have:

1)CDE under 1 slur followed by FGA under a different slur.
In this case, i beleive you shoud play CDE legato as well as FGA, but both groups slighty detached from each other. That is, you slighty detach the E of the first group from the F of the second. Is this right?

2)Now, there is a notation that confuses me.
Let supose you have the scale: CDEFGAB
But in the score, you see CDEF under one slur, and FGAB under a different slur mark. That is, F is common to both slurs. In this case, i suppose the whole scale should be played legato, as if you have the sequence under a single slur mark.
But using 2 slurs instead of a single one should have some musical meaning, i guess.


Thanks in advance for your help.

[pianistimo]

as i understand it, if they write the slur that way - then you play it that way (answer #1).  sometimes, with pedal, you can give an impression rather than a 'blip' that seems like there was a mistake of some kind.  more an articulation rather than phrase ending.

[allchopin]

It sounds to me like that idea they are trying to get across is that you should do T.O. (thumb over) after CDEF because upon doing this, you will most likely have a very slight 'blip' in the legato when you play the full scale. 
The slurs only indicate legato where they are written - if the slur ends, your legato ends (in this case, on F).  And they do not always indicate phrasing (take Brahms' Op. 118/2 for example: if you follow the slurring as phrasing, you will have a very confused conception of where phrases are).