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Topic: Beethoven and the modern piano  (Read 1281 times)

Offline bradley

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Beethoven and the modern piano
on: July 08, 2006, 11:49:22 AM
I have a question...

I'm busy finishing learning the Waldstein sonata (op 53). Now, I know that Beethoven's piano only went down to an F, but there are one or two places where I think that if Beethoven had had a semitone more below that (an E), he would have definitely written it down there. The places I'm talking about in particular:

are in the 1st mvt: m 285 the E and F - in the previous bar the bass is in octaves; surely Beethoven would have wanted to carry on in this vain if he had had the lower E? I am considering playing the E and F in the LH in octaves (doubled an octave lower)

in the 3rd mvt: m 74 - the LH E in the beginning of the bar: surely Beethoven would have wanted this too to be an octave if on considers the previous bars?

Let me know what you think - I personally think it sounds better with the added octaves...

Thanks, Bradley

Offline xhunterjx

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Re: Beethoven and the modern piano
Reply #1 on: July 08, 2006, 03:18:56 PM
No, don't add anything that is not in the original score.

Offline bench warmer

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Re: Beethoven and the modern piano
Reply #2 on: July 08, 2006, 03:49:59 PM
 
I've seen the same thing, with editor's comments, in the Scherzo of the Eb-M Sonata 31#3.
Around measure 50-60 Beethoven used an Eb and D instead of the higher Ab and G since his piano didn't go up that high.  He probably would have used the higher notes.

....But,  Beethoven is one of Gods you don't want to mess with without incurring the wrath of the lesser gods or everybody else.

Offline pianistimo

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Re: Beethoven and the modern piano
Reply #3 on: July 09, 2006, 12:51:24 AM
i've made adjustments in my score accordingly and don't care if i incure wrath.  when u perform on a good piano - it just highlights the piano.  esp. if the bass is tuned well.  if not - it might not sound so good.  sometimes very low notes have to be played carefully so u don't get a buzz.  u can see in measure 76 that beethoven actually does use the octave there - so why not in measure 74?  (last mov't).  that would be my explaination if someone asked.

there's someplace in one of my mozart sonatas and possibly a bach prelude that i was thinking the exact same thing.  i'm of the opposite camp.  i think whatever sounds appropriate and good at the same time is ok.  it's not like ur adding a different note (being that it's an octave).  it's just increasing the sound.
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