...(continued from above)...
Forgive my ramblings above, but my main question is what applies in the case of a transcription of what is heard into notes on the printed page. I suspect that the law of copyright does say something about this and that it cannot be got round in this way. The Oscar Peterson files that were posted might have been created in this way. Does the person who created them own any copyright as a result of transcribing them, I wonder?
(xxx)
Tue, 23 January 2007 20:00
alistair hinton
Registered: January 2006
Location: BATH, UK Senior Member
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
can the originator withdraw his or her works from the public domain?
In principle, yes, although it would be rather unusual; the only circumstance in which one could conceive of something like this occurring is when a composer has given a work into the public domain but then decides to withdraw it from circulation altogether or withdraw it for revision.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 13:45
Farce may not be the best word. I was trying to say that given the existence of copyright laws, the situation is somewhat absurd (or anarchic, if you like) if these laws can be flouted with impunity. Laws that can be ignored in this way become bad laws and will surely eventually fall by the wayside. The fact that an increasing number of countries have adopted copyright agreements does not in itself, in my view, make such agreements desirable.
I think that I already understood your intended meaning when using the word "farce". The potential danger in what you appear to contend here is that, as long as a way can be found to flout any law, that law is - or at least thereby becomes - by definiton "bad". Copyright law - or rather intellectual property law - is not a new concept and it applies not only to music and literature but also to inventions of many kinds. Any intellectual property can be stolen as long as the thief has sufficient determination, expertise and means to do so, but this is very little different to the case with any other kinds of property. People's identities are stolen frequently nowadays, as is money from bank and credit card accounts. It has even been possible to steal people's homes by misppropriating and/or forging title deed documentation; I happen to know (though not well) someone who returned from a four-month foreign business trip to find that he had been relieved of ownership of his apartment and that it had been sold - and this had nothing to do with a lender's legitimate repossession as a consequence of bad debt but was based solely upon fraudulent use of documentation without his consent or knowledge - OK, the illegal sale transaction was eventually unravelled, he got his apartment back and the person responsible or this rather serious breach of the law is now serving a prison sentence, but that does not alter the fact that the crime could and did occur. None of these facts renders the basic laws of ownership "absurd" or "anarchic"; all they do is reveal how some laws need not only tightening up but more effective policing.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
But if they can be downloaded with impunity, who would not do so?
The best answer I can give to that is "all those who order it directly from us and all those who will continue to do so"; it has been perfectly possible to do this kind of thing for years, yet people still pay us for these scores.
In Sorabji's case, I might add, it has been possible for people to supply illicit scans only because we had originally supplied the material; had we never issued any of these items, there would have been nothing for anyone to scan in the first place.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
The law then becomes irrelevant. It could hardly be regarded as sensible if most people (not just certain people) ignored it.
Apart from the danger associated with this kind of stance as I mentioned above, who should decide - and on what grounds - whether "most people" or only "certain people" ignore the laws that govern this particular material? For one thing, no one is in any legitimate position of authority to do this and then to use the evidence gathered as justification either for a recommended change in the law or for breaches of the existing law; for another, it would be impossible to determine how many people over any given period had obtained any material legally and how many had obtained it illegally. That would therefore be a non-starter.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
My criterion of whether a law is “good” or “bad” is whether it is enforced, i.e. if it can be enforced, it is a good law; if it cannot be enforced, or if is not enforced, it is a bad law. (This has nothing to do, of course, with with the ethical meaning of “good” and “bad”. Some laws that are enforced are undesirable, and vice versa.)
In every country there are, of course, "good" and "bad" laws as well as instances when laws, good or bad, are more effectively enforced than others, but if everyone else shared a belief that your criterion is the only valid one by which to judge the worthiness or otherwise of any law, we would all very soon be living in a pretty anarchic society.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
A lot of people yesterday spent the day beachcombing so to speak (i.e. picking up the remains of goods (including valuable goods) from a shipwreck on the south coast of England. Technically it was theft, but since the owners can and will claim on the insurance and the police did nothing to stop the “beachcombers” at first, it made the law look ridiculous.
Indeed they did; this, however, was a case when mass action in one single instance did nothing of the sort - it made the law look unenforceable (at least while it could be flouted) as distinct from "ridiculous". This kind of thing doesn't happen every day, but if, for example, enough people, en masse, decided to descend upon a supermarket and take just what they wanted, the security officers and police would be able to do very little about it. Where would be the difference between this and the beachcombing case? The fact is that there is no such difference. Does that make the law "ridiculous"? Of course it doesn't. Only yesterday, my local train station became the victim of a mass protest about overcharging and overcrowding; the result was that people printed false and valueless tickets and were allowed to travel free using them. They don't do this every day, of course, but the same applies here as to the beachcombing case.
You mention owners being able to claim on their insurance for the loss of their stolen goods which is, of course, usually covered by their policies. Two issues occur to me here. The first is that, if someone tried to claim on such a loss having him/herself knowingly retrieved the "lost" goods in the beachcombing exercise, they would technically be in breach of another law - that of fraudulent insurance claim yet, in those massed theft circumstances, it is most unlikely that anyone could prove that any owner had actually done this. Does this fact make the laws governing insurance fraud "ridiculous"? The second is that, were such unpoliced mass theft to become a far more frequent occurrence, how do you suppose insurers will respond? First, they will raise premiums substantially and then some of them will cease to cover theft at all, just as some insurers have either raised premiums or chickened out of offering cover for professional indemnity in the past. Insurance is all about risk; if the risk is just too great, companies will cease to provide the necessary insurance cover. If insurers ceased to offer theft cover, the statutory requirement for valid insurance to be in force on all on-road motor vehicles at all times would become unenforceable as a direct consequence; in this instance, motor insurance law would indeed then look "ridiculous", but only by having been made to do so as a direct consequence of wholesale flouting of laws governing theft.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
Of course, I support laws governing theft,
Really?! It doesn't sound like it at all!
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
but even if I agreed to equate the downloading of music in copyright with “theft of private property”,
And why would you not do so? Whatever reasons you may have and however valid or otherwise they may be, you have not stated what they are; it would ease understanding of this phrase of yours were you to do so.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
“disregard of the law” is not a meaningful expression if the law is not enforced!
I think that I've covered this already, except to say two things. Firstly, there are plenty of occasions when the law is indeed enforced and there would, after all, be little or no work either for intellectual property lawyers or police who work in such areas if no such enforcements were ever made; no one in his/her right mind would knowingly engage a lawyer at vast expense in the certain advance knowledge that no possible redress could or would result. Secondly, would you advocate - or be prepared to accept - more copyright police in order to make the law more enforceable and therefore less "ridiculous"-looking?
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
Forgive my ramblings above, but my main question is what applies in the case of a transcription of what is heard into notes on the printed page. I suspect that the law of copyright does say something about this and that it cannot be got round in this way.
Indeed it does - although what it "says" is really no different to the way it addresses any other form of illegal copying; the principle is precisely the same and only the techniques involved in the theft are different. That said, the material difference in application here is that one is dealing with a creation that may not originally have been notated (i.e. an improvised performance) but which has been transcribed into notation. If the improviser is happy for this to be done by someone else without having to give permission for it, then that puts the original work in the public domain, so it is no longer covered by copyright law and there is therefore no problem. However, even in such circumstances, if the original improvisation happens to be based wholly or in part on someone else's copyright material (which is not uncommon in the jazz world), then the rights of the original composer of that material may have been flouted by the transcriber.
(xxx) wrote on Tue, 23 January 2007 18:22
The Oscar Peterson files that were posted might have been created in this way. Does the person who created them own any copyright as a result of transcribing them, I wonder?
To begin with, I do not know if the Peterson material concerned is wholly in the public domain or not. If the transcriber has merely notated what Peterson played, he is not entitled to establish copyright in his/her work, because intellectual property rights extend only to originators of material. If, on the other hand, he/she has added material of his/her own, he/she would be entitled to establish copyright in any such addition. In such cases, national royalty collecting/distributing organisations such as PRS in UK would usually have the work assessed to determine what portion of rights apply to whom. Take, for example, Sorabji's two Pastiches on Chopin's "Minute" Waltz; even though the original is in the public domain (and therefore not subject to copyright law), the transcriber (Sorabji) was entitled only to copyright on his elaborations/distortions of the original, so the work had to be assessed to the extent of determining what proportion was Chopin's and what proportion Sorabji's."
No, if anyone has been bothered to read this far (OK, may I now address both of you?!), the basic point in understanding of this issue is that, since stealing a car, a house, money, personal identity, etc. is still relieveing the owner of his/her rightful property without his/her permission and without payment for that property, it is in reality no different to the theft of intellectual property; the only "difference" is that you can't actually see the intellectual property per se (by which I mean the creation as distinct from a recording / script / score of it), whereas in all the other cases (except that of personal identity and moeny that is not actually in the form of hard cash) the stolen property can be seen.
I hope that this attempt at explanation helps.
Best,
Alistair