I know that many will say it is a question of interpretation, and I have no choice but to accept this. Nonetheless, I don't agree with it for many reasons and, in fact, think that it is simply incorrect to do a rit. at this particular place.
In 95% of all cases there is a rit before a fermata. And I do a rit. at this particular place as well.Why not?
I would be very wary of overdoing the rit (or doing it at all). I think could come across as a romantic-era mannerism and perhaps stylistically inappropriate.
Mcgill,i agree with you for the simple reason that in the urtext the fermata is on the rest and not on the note. this means to me that you should treat the rest as a more sensitive point.In his excellent book " an introduction to piano interpretation" Jaksa Zlatar even treats the fermata on rests in Beethoven sonatas on Page 70. You should check it out it gives a lot of information on the interpretation of piano music in general. It's hard to find though.