I think that only the theory says that masculine endings must be accented on the last note and the feminine endings must be accented on the second to last note, because it depends obviously on the piece, on the style and so on. The composers after Mozart often indicate their intentions in this regard with dynamics or articulation signs. Example: Beethoven sonatina op. 49,2, second mvt m.4 there is a female ending quarter note-eighth note, marked with a slur and a rest after the eighth note. In m. 8 there is a masculine ending, but this should not be accented and Beethoven did not make an articulation sign because it's on the tonic. If he would like to have an accent he would make a sign like a sforzato, an accent sign, a portato sign etc. But finally it's the form (the phrase) and the harmony who decide.I hope this helps.
Topic: Masculine and feminine endings 