Hi all,I've just recently learnt this beautiful piece by Liszt, and I'm just concerned about the pedalling that is used in this piece.Well for the first cadenza, would I need to use pedal (damper)? I know it says 'senza pedale' but then it sounds.. jumpy. But then If I do use the pedal it sounds like everything is scrunched together and doesn't have that nice flow going. Does that mean I have to press down the pedal half way or...? I would appreciate your opinions.and also for the first two pages and the last two pages where, do you play it with the soft pedal also? If so, till where do you hold it down for? Take care
Also I think the section you are talking about are the fast, grace notes, sections right ? That is not a cadenza.
? Why not? Some people might say that the strict definition would be an extended solo passage in a concerto, but it's pretty standard to refer to such passages as cadenzas elsewhere. Certainly not "wrong", by any means. Liszt frequently improvised alternatives to such passages. The two virtuosic filler passages in this piece would be deemed cadenzas in most people's estimation- especially seeing as they are written in grace notes.
The author is not Liszt. If it doesn't say "cadenza", there isn't one. Some versions do state "ad libitum", but it still isn't a cadenza.
? You misunderstand the meaning of the word cadenza. It's a virtuosic filler that links two segments. You don't have to refer to it as cadenza yourself if you do not wish to, but there's no basis for telling anyone they are wrong to refer to it as a cadenza. The term is regularly used for virtuosic passages that basically serve no great musical purpose other than to link two sections- especially when notated in free rhythm and without bar-lines. The two passages in this work are the very epitome of the miniature cadenza.
Yes, a filler that is improvised or written by the pianist.
? Are you living in the 18th century or something? You do not feel that the Rachmaninoff 3rd concerto contains any cadenza? Anyone who uses the term solely in that context (and goes so far as to "correct" others who use it in the modern sense) must be living in the dark ages.
I haven't "corrected" anybody as far as I am aware... And I don't know. Does it state "cadenza"? In that case I would expect the performer is free to play what s/he want, but Rnoff would suggest what he has written (or the ossia).
While i never meant for this to evolve into a discussion (especially since I wasn't the one to even mention the grace notes), I have to say I think it is perfectly reasonable to use the definition of a cadenza in Liszt's time, for a piece written by Liszt.
What about the 2nd Hungarian Rhpasody for instance? It says cadenza in the performer is supposed to play s/he has written or improvise.