If a phrase mark or a slur ends on the penultimate note, does it mean you are to break before playing the last note or should you just ignore it and play to the end of the phrase as you would have if the mark went right to the end?also do notes without phrase marks really mean that they should be played slightly non legato?
also do notes without phrase marks really mean that they should be played slightly non legato?
Well if they aren't fast notes, then yes, they are non legato, right?
I don't think so unless they are specified in the music. Phrases are just there for the shaping of notes and playing notes smoothly.
In Mozart's day phrase marks were equavilant to slurs. The phrase marks we know today are a Romantic invention. You can always read Leopold Mozart's book on playing the violin downloadable from the web.