WHY DO THEY EXIST?!?!?!!I've asked my teacher this several times, and he keeps giving me this half hour long music theory lecture about they key signature of the piece, or something like that. FINE... I guess I can deal with that. I still think it makes no sense, but... *deep breath* okay... But when I see this in Scriabin or anybody who writes without a key signature, I have a problem with that! I first saw this in Scriabin's prelude Op. 67 No. 1. The first chord that starts the piece had a E in it. Okay no problem. But what really got me mad was that the chord after it had a F flat IN THE SAME MEASURE!!! And that's not the worse of it either. The next measure, it went back to the original chord that started the piece. But in stead of leaving E alone, he decided to put a Natural in parentheses! Are you kidding me?! It was already natural to begin with! Why would you make a it a double natural?!!!?!??!?! It's not even in a key signature, why is Scriabin writing like that?! Does he intentionally want to make it harder to read?! I know Scriabin was crazy, but this is just too much! Just because you think you're god, doesn't mean you can add redundancy to your music.
The "unnecessary" natural signs also make sense if you accept that the the convention of "in the same octave" does at times lead to confusion, whereas here the intent is clear.
Leads to confusion? How does it lead to confusion?! It's the exact same note that you just played two seconds ago!I refuse to accept this redundancy.
For memorisers, I fail to see what difference it makes since you'll not be looking at the score anyway.
Hey, I'm not THAT bad of a sight reader now. It'll only take me a couple hours to sightread through the whole Rach 3! It's a couple hours, but at least it's still a note perfect performance! Now all I need to do is find an orchestra...
I know Scriabin was crazy