I assumed where fftransform listed a set he meant a performance of the entire set[.]
This is correct.
No doubt, if you are, you will find out in due course, at great length, and with suitable vitriole.
Also correct. Key word:
suitable. My vitriol (spelling!) is always in direct proportion with proper reciprocation; I'm just typically more explicit in my responses to implicit, but equal, vitriol. Please read upward and realize that this is quite obviously the case.
I rather think it's more likely he's trying to make the question objective by hypothesising some sort of objectively standard pianist. Given his mathematical/scientific background, that is an understandable position. It is still a useless one.
Ok; tell us why. From what I can see, you have a grand total of two directions to go with this: Both are wrong, and if you actually bother to make an argument, I'll actually bother to tell you why it's incorrect. Until then, all you've said is, "you're wrong; no no no, I don't need to defend my statements. He just needs to defend his."
..I'm inclined to feel like fftransform actively looks for fights.
Partially true, although the choice of the word "fight" connotes something incorrect. I am interested in wrecking two arguments: that the answer to this at a given time is subjective, and some arguments concerning this thing some people call "musicality," although the second type has not cropped up, yet.
..actually, consider he said he's not interested in the result, rather the conversation that ensues, I'm not sure what the expectation was.
I am interested in making people realize that it is objective. Because it is. It is painfully obvious. Expectations were low, I will tell you that.
Hey, Mister Fast Fourier could have just won the prize as this year's most obnoxious contributor here!
Of course, you are familiar with the famous quote of Derrida . . .
Nonsense. Complete, utter, ridiculous nonsense.
In any part of the advanced repertoire, what makes one piece difficult is not the same as what makes another piece difficult. What I may be good at and what I may struggle with will determine the relative difficulty of pieces for me rather than some illusory objective criteria.
You have asked a stupid question in order to provoke responses to cater to your need to argue offensively. Either get a life, or find a 12 step program.
I have no need to argue offensively - nobody here is doing that, e.g. telling people that they have no life, insinuating some psychological issues, calling their questions stupid, etc. That is clearly not happening in this thread; from where do you get the impression that it is? But if something like that were happening, then I would probably respond in kind.
Regardless, if you grant me that it is
objective that Debussy's Reverie is easier than Feux d'Artifice, I have won the argument immediately. I think you should think before you speak; do you not see why this is true? I will go through this one more time; now maybe you will understand it.
So, you hand me Reverie and Feux d'Artifice, and tell me to show which one is harder. I can do this objectively - you have granted this, as far as I can tell, given that one piece is easy and one piece is difficult. But
how do I do this? Well, I have some virtues that certain piano works can exhibit, A, B, . . . N. Feux d'Artifice has qualities C, D, . . . K, for instance, to some certain degrees, and Reverie has some other properties E, F, . . . L, also to certain degrees - do you understand this? If I could objectively tell that Feux d'Artifice is harder than Reverie from these qualities, we have some system of determining a piece's difficulty (say, a numerical value on the interval [0,1]) from them. So now you say that I cannot use this system to compare the difficulties of two difficult works. Please note that if you gave me any 'difficult' work, I am able to determine which virtues it has and its degrees, because I could have substituted in that difficult work for Feux d'Artifice when comparing it against the easy piece, Reverie, and succeeded - do you understand this? So now you give me two 'difficult' works, and you say that I can no longer use these virtues to determine which is more difficult. That is your argument - do you understand this? Now, please see that there are only a finite number of pieces written for the piano, and you have split works into two categories: easy and difficult. Apparently, we know which pieces are easy and which pieces are difficult, just not which are the "most difficult" (and I think you will want to argue that we also do not know which pieces are the "most easy"; if you don't accept this claim, you will be in some trouble, so I am doing you a favor). So you have given me a partition of all piano pieces. Please see that this partition is arbitrary: For instance, surely we can use these virtues to determine that Feux d'Artifice, while hard, is not as hard as Barrett's Tract - do you agree? It would be quite unintuitive, and ad hoc, to disagree, but feel free to do so. So I can further categorize into easy, hard, very hard. I can continue on like this, and start getting an order on the difficulty of all piano pieces, or at least break up the piano repertoire into very many disjoint sets of difficulty. But you say there is some unexplained reason why I cannot completely order the piano repertoire using these virtues: that is a bizarre and seemingly ridiculous argument. It is your job to say why I can use these virtues to objectively and truthfully tell the difference between two pieces, but not two others. Your argument seems to necessarily be one about the precision of these virtues; but if they are imprecise, this is equivalent to saying that they are incomplete. But I truthfully and objectively could tell the difference between Reverie and Feux d'Artifice; if they were incomplete, it is clear that I would not have been able to know that I had successfully done so. Contradiction - do you understand?