I was expecting this reaction, I thought of it myself while writing the last comment Of course, the difference between both erras isn't that simplistic, there's room for both emtion and expressiveness in Baroque and vocal understanding in Romantic.I knew I couldn't try to explain things that simply when awesom_o is lurking about! :]
Glenn Gould made some of the most expressive recordings of Baroque music in the entire history of recordings.Do you consider Lang Lang's playing to be more expressive than Horowitz's playing simply because he makes silly faces? What does expressiveness in the playing REALLY come from?
But don't get me wrong - technical details are still very important in Romantic music and Expressiveness is still important in Baroque. Like everything in music, it's not black and white, it's about subtle choices.
And it's back to me simplifying musical phenomenons and you not content with the simplification ><
I believe one significant difference between playing Baroque and Romantic era pieces is that baroque works were not actually written for the piano, but romantic era pieces were very much written for it.
At any rate, Baroque keyboard music was usually written just for 'keyboard'. How is this in and of itself a difference? Musically, I mean, or philosophically, if you will.... What would we do differently, technically, or musically, as a result of something not being originally written for our modern instrument? What could we do differently?How would what we could do differ from what we would do?