Op2 No3 - the first few bars of mvt 1 and the main theme of mvt 3

[yohankwon]

I've listened to several recordings of only the first few bars of the 1st Mvt including Barenboim, Perahia, Brendel, etc, and most of them connect the slurs starting from the 16th note thirds (BD CE BD CE) to the first 8th note thirds (DF). I, however, prefer to cut off the slur at the end of the 16th note thirds (so the slur covers the 16th note thirds BD CE only). I got my preference from the way I played it on violin (Because this sonata is like an orchestral symphony, except for piano). Would that (how most pianists play those thirds) be a misinterpretation of the slur on the thirds or am I the one misinterpreting it?

I feel that I need a better understanding of Beethoven's articulation, especially how to play the slurs, grace notes (most of them before the beat), etc.

Same thing for the 3rd mvt as well.

What do you think?

Here's a video of a recent performance of the 1st Mvt:

[liszt1022]

I checked imslp, and half the editons end the slur at the last 16th (inc. the first edition) and the other half end it at the 8th following.
I play it with the slur leading into the 8th.
I also view it as a piano reduction of orchestral writing, so if you know better about how the strings would play that, then I'd say you have very good reasoning to end it at the 16ths.