Hi all,
I tried to write a detailed enough post, but can see I left a few important points out. I want to say thank you for bringing this to my attention.
Firstly, this is the solo version and not the duet for 4 hands. Thank you j_menz for pointing this out.
Secondly, the notes are b, a#, f#, d#, c#, b. I can see now, that I should have not only included that first b, but should have also pointed out phrase breaks. The first "b" is the end of the previous phrase and the last "b" of these 6 notes starts another phrase.
j-menz states this explicitly and this is tacit in nyiregyhazi's statement, "This fingering runs contrary to the typical brahms principle of getting as many notes under under the hand as possible before starting a new position". Thank you both for responding.
I missed the importance of this. I'm only an intermediate and still have much to learn.
If fingering is based primarily or often on phrase breaks (I don't know btw, is it?), then I would conclude that there are two such plausible possibilities.
j_menz' fingering would be 5,4-3-2-1, 1. I like this notation where the commas, function as phrase breaks. Awesome j_menz.
nyiregyhazi's fingering would be 5,5432,1.
I had something different in mind. It's probably wrong but I was making an effort to avoid hopping with 1,1 or 5,5. Also, I was deliberately trying to avoid playing a melodic 3rd with fingers 3 and 4.
In the SECOND measure of the (b) section I accomplish both of these things by a simple finger substitution. Thus, I play d#,c#-a#-f#-e,d# with 4-5 (substitution) on c# which is, of course, the beginning of the next phrase. This accomplishes SEVERAL of my probably wrong (or just insane) objectives. There is no hop from 5 to 5 AND I play the short key c# with a longer 4th finger. I thought (again, probably incorrectly, that this was better). The 4th finger is just there hovering above the key. Isn't this why I studied scales?
It just seems right to me. Probably because I'm a firm believer in Chopin's fingering of 2,3 on two black key groups and 2,3,4 on three black key groups. I'm just an dumb intermediate and don't know any better. Oh, well.
So, having substituted 5 for 4 on c#, I can now Chopinize (Is that even a word?), Brahms. The 4th finger falls on a# very comfortably (Thank you, Chopin) and the 2nd finger is just "magically" over f#. I don't know but it just doesn't get any better than this (for me, anyway).
The SEEMINGLY, similar figure in measure 4, suggested to me that I do this same 4-5 finger substitution. It does eliminate a hop, and the longer 4th finger plays a black key, check. I just didn't care for the way it felt playing a# to f# 5-4. Measure 4 that way becomes 5,4-5(sub)-4-3-2,1. What to do. Chopin's not around to ask and he probably wouldn't talk to me anyway. Well, I tried this 5,4-2-3-2,1. No hops and very comfortable. It just FEELS so right, but Bernhard has said something about fingering and that it should be first and foremost about sound and secondly, about comfort. So, this thought (too many of those get in my way) bothered me about this choice of fingering but the damper makes it legato anyway. Does it ABSOLUTELY, have to be fingered with finger legato only?
My biggest problem, obviously, is mental, but a lobotomy is out plus I don't really have the money for one. So, one of my many much smaller piano problems is what nyregihazi mentioned. That would be arm guidance. I noticed in a few pieces I'm playing, that my arm stays relatively perpendicular to the keys and guides the hand. These pieces are somewhat more advanced and it was nearly impossible to play them without it. Occasionally, I do this backward and let the hand guide the arm. This is obviously wrong and something I will have to work on to eliminate.
I think I will be an intermediate forever. Oh, well. I'll just have to be the best intermediate I can be.
Badeep, badeep that's all folks, Joe.
P.S. Is it generally considered wrong to start a new position within a phrase? Or is this done all the time? Or maybe it's just wrong when playing Brahms? I don' know.