Of course you were criticized, because your playing of this composition (Brahms Intermezzo) was so bad and there was nothing to talk about voicing, harmony and interpretation of the music. There was no music, no perfomance of this piece, so what did you expect? And you even didn't play a whole piece, so how we could dicuss its form?
Hi Verqueue,
What I am trying to find out from you is what about the playing was bad. You say there was "no performance of this piece", which is a bit akin to saying I didn't really play the music because it was not presented exactly as notated - I think this is your position. Yet, here we have in this thread a J.S. Bach organ chorale prelude. But I didn't play it as the original is notated. I used a piano instead of an organ. Surely you don't think all recordings on piano of Bach's organ choral prelude are "bad" because the music is not played as notated by Bach? Or, maybe you do . . . some persons in this world feel that all music not 100% as in the original is bad. Some of those persons think that all Chopin played on something other than a period Pleyel piano is bad.
I guess that in your opinion, golden age pianists didn't know very much about piano playing and weren't very proficient at it.
In accordance with what seem to be your opinions, Brahms would have to be included in the list of bad reciters of music on the piano, because he rolled chords all the time, and his tempo (in the one recording of him and in his own music) is highly erratic, to say the least about it.
These are not my positions, these are your positions, or ones which likely are very close to them.
I guess I have to to keep waiting for the critique which I seek, and which this forum is supposed to be for, because in the Bach organ chorale prelude, as with the Brahms Intermezzo which I also did title correctly, I didn't play the music as notated in the original.
Forgive me for not owning or having access to a $500,000 pipe organ.