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Topic: How are these scenarios to be played?  (Read 1795 times)

Offline allchopin

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How are these scenarios to be played?
on: June 05, 2005, 02:13:25 AM
There are several differing scenarios of question, all based around this: A note from a chord is tied to the same note in a non-consecutive chord - is the second note to be rearticulated?  Also, what if the note is written with it's own beam, as if to imply its own voice?

(from Rachmaninoff's Etude 33/4)
1) Is the A considered to be its own voice, thereby ignoring any notes in between the note and the tied note?


2) Again, should the D be rearticulated?


3) The chords containing the C are given staccato markings - would this mean that all notes are to be rearticulated?


(from Chopin's Barcarolle)
4) Another case in question.


Thanks.
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Offline lagin

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Re: How are these scenarios to be played?
Reply #1 on: June 05, 2005, 02:31:59 AM
1.  Hold the "A" down and play the other notes with the other fingers

2.  No, hold the "D"

3.  Hold the tied "C" and play the other notes staccato

4.  would have to see more of the music, sorry, anyone?  Even then, I'm note sure what is going on with that grace note/appogiatura thing.
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Offline quantum

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Re: How are these scenarios to be played?
Reply #2 on: June 05, 2005, 04:48:26 AM
4. Hold A; play grace notes while still holding A; play main note while still holding A. 

Hmm, now I notice the bottom voice has just disappeared in the second measure.  Could you please post the measure numbers so I can check in my score. 
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Offline allchopin

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Re: How are these scenarios to be played?
Reply #3 on: June 05, 2005, 05:44:48 PM
Thanks for your responses, that clears some things up. 
What if these notes had not been given their own stems as part of the chord - would they still be held?  I ask this because I have this notion that if the note that it is tied to does not immediately follow, then it is not intended to be held (when not given a separate stem, that is).
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Offline quantum

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Re: How are these scenarios to be played?
Reply #4 on: June 05, 2005, 09:31:49 PM
Thanks for your responses, that clears some things up.
What if these notes had not been given their own stems as part of the chord - would they still be held? I ask this because I have this notion that if the note that it is tied to does not immediately follow, then it is not intended to be held (when not given a separate stem, that is).

If the two notes tied are the same pitch, are immediately beside each other, and do not have individual stems yes they are held.   This is a notational shortcut employed if individually voicing held notes becomes to complicated.  An example of this would be Brahms Op. 118 Nr. 6 last two measures. 

An example of stemming individual voices Beethoven "Moonlight" 3rd movement.  Near the coda there are 32nd runs of diminished chords. 
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