What does "G/B" mean?

[rochkind]

I'm trying to play from a fake book, and a chord is marked "G/B." I at first assumed this meant "G chord" followed by "B chord," but then I wasn't so sure, and thought maybe it's some notation that I don't know about.

Can anyone straighten me out?

[nilsjohan]

G/B means a G-major triad over a B (ie B in the bass).

[rmc7777]

Rochkind,

Also, for obvious reasons, these are called "slash chords".  

[clef]

yeah what he said.  anychord with a slash, such as Bb/C or Abm7/Eb, play the chord on the left, with the right hand side note down the bottom.  Slash chords are used alot for creating pedal tones... 

C, Gm7, F/C, C
C, Bb/C, F, C

sorry just doing some internal composition.... 

[allchopin]

G/B means a G-major triad over a B (ie B in the bass).

Way to go nils!    Comes out of the shadows for an instant to fight fires, then ducks away...

[prometheus]

such as Bb/C or Abm7/Eb,   

Abm7 already has a Eb as its fifth so it can't be a slash chord.

[allchopin]

Abm7 already has a Eb as its fifth so it can't be a slash chord.

This is in the same way that B is the third of a G chord; it is easier for the rest of us to say a G in first inversion, but for easy-read music, this must be simpler (?).

[cfortunato]

Abm7 already has a Eb as its fifth so it can't be a slash chord.

Of course it can.  It just means that an Eb is the bass instead of the more usual root.

[prometheus]

Yes, B/G is also wrong. It would be called a G7 chord or a G7 chord in in inversion.

instead of the more usual root.

More usual root? A chord has one one root. You mean the note in the bass.


So these chords are just inversions, not slash chords. If you notate them with a slash you are making a notation mistake. At least that is what I think. It would be very confusing.

[cfortunato]

Yes, B/G is also wrong. It would be called a G7 chord or a G7 chord in in inversion.


More usual root? A chord has one one root. You mean the note in the bass.


So these chords are just inversions, not slash chords. If you notate them with a slash you are making a notation mistake. At least that is what I think. It would be very confusing.

That's probably because you don't play pop music.   The bass note of a C major is almost always "C," but if you want it to be a G, "C/G" is a very common chord notation.   It is also a common progression to end a song - C/G, G7, C.

[prometheus]

Thats not the point. You don't notate an chord inversion with a slash. At least you shouldn't.

[cfortunato]

Thats not the point. You don't notate an chord inversion with a slash. At least you shouldn't.

The bass note significantly changes the character of the chord.  If that bass note is important to the character of the chord, yes, you do.

[cfortunato]

Just to be clear - the bass note is usually not PART of the inversion.  It's a bass note; it's an Octave or two BELOW the inverted chord.

[prometheus]

Well, thats just a really strange way of looking at it. A way I am not familiar with. Why would you not consider the lowest note of your chord voicing to be part of the chord voicing? I mean, isn't the definition of a first inversion that the third is in the base? And that of a second inversion that the fifth is in the base?

Surely inversion chords have very different harmonic usages. But there are tons of common ways to notate them. And a slash isn't one of them. I have only seen it used as an 'alien note' under a chord. Actually, I have some books that strongly speak against using a slash for inversions and that is actually a jazz book written by one of the teachers at Berklee for Berklee press. In classical books they talk about 6 and 46 chords when they talk about inversions, figured bass style.

[cfortunato]

Well, thats just a really strange way of looking at it. A way I am not familiar with. Why would you not consider the lowest note of your chord voicing to be part of the chord voicing? I mean, isn't the definition of a first inversion that the third is in the base? And that of a second inversion that the fifth is in the base?
Surely inversion chords have very different harmonic usages. But there are tons of common ways to notate them. And a slash isn't one of them. I have only seen it used as an 'alien note' under a chord. Actually, I have some books that strongly speak against using a slash for inversions and that is actually a jazz book written by one of the teachers at Berklee for Berklee press. In classical books they talk about 6 and 46 chords when they talk about inversions, figured bass style.

The easiest way I can explain it is by sound.  In the key of C, play a C major - any inversion - with a strong G - octaved - low in the left hand.  What you are playing "feels" more like a Dominant than a Tonic, even though it's technically a tonic.   And if you bass the E, it sounds downright dischordant.

[prometheus]

It's not like I don't know that...  But it is not called a slash chord, ever.

[cfortunato]

It's not like I don't know that...  But it is not called a slash chord, ever.

I'm sorry, but you are simply wrong.  Maybe YOU don't call it a slash chord, but it IS called a slash chord, frequently.

[prometheus]

You mean this: 6/4 chord?

Surely not C/G...


Look up any definition of a half cadence. Try to find one using C/G. If it does, examine the author/origin.

[cfortunato]

You mean this: 6/4 chord?

Surely not C/G...


Look up any definition of a half cadence. Try to find one using C/G. If it does, examine the author/origin.

No, I mean C/G.  Do a websearch, or go look at some sheet music.

[prometheus]

I am not saying it is never used at all. I am just saying it is bad notation.

[steve jones]

Abm7 already has a Eb as its fifth so it can't be a slash chord.

Is it not just another way of writing the same thing? Maybe used by someone without much knowledge of 'book' theory?

SJ

[prometheus]

Well, it is just my opinion, and that of others as well, that you shouldn't notate an inversion using a slash chord. It is strange since it kind of suggests that the G isn't part of the chord, for one. I mean, a second inversion isn't the same as a G bass note with a C chord on top of it. The chord is inverted. It is not placed on top of an alien note.

[mwarner1]

This is a silly argument because pop notation and classical notation are clearly different. In classical notation, there is no such thing as a slash chord in the first place! But in pop notation and chord charts, it is very rare to see the classical notation for inversions (6 and 64 for triads) used; rather, they always use slashes to indicate that the bass note differs from the root, whether or not that bass note is a chord member. This is done for the sake of fast sight reading, especially since an average pop musician does not know classical notation.

From a theoretical point of view, yes, the inversion symbols make much more sense than the slash chord system, which does, in a way, kind of suggest that the bass is a separate entity from the chord. But the idea is that most casual pop musicians don't know jack about theory, so the slash chord is a short cut for the LCD (musically speaking, of course; I am not equating ignorance with stupidity by any means).

[joachimf]

Hi!

I'm sorry to bump an old post, but since you're on the topic.

I'm kind of new to theory (never really taken time to explore it, but I am trying now=)

I know what an inversion is, and -now- what a slash chord is. But, since you're debating whether an inversion can be notated as a slash chord or not: How do you notate inversions in general(if you're not using a slash)?

(Hope I haven't accidentally missed just what I'm asking for in some post above...)

Best regards,
Joachim

[jlh]

Hi!

I'm sorry to bump an old post, but since you're on the topic.

I'm kind of new to theory (never really taken time to explore it, but I am trying now=)

I know what an inversion is, and -now- what a slash chord is. But, since you're debating whether an inversion can be notated as a slash chord or not: How do you notate inversions in general(if you're not using a slash)?

(Hope I haven't accidentally missed just what I'm asking for in some post above...)

Best regards,
Joachim

Here's some resources you might find helpful in sorting all this out. 

https://www.musictheory.net/lessons/html/id44_en.html

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Figured_bass

https://library.thinkquest.org/15413/theory/chords.htm


BTW, I've never heard the term "slash-chord", but it seems an accurate description.  I do know that this type of chord symbol is very common in jazz and pop music, and it is designed to be read easily -- and not to be congruent with classical conventions.  This is a different genre with different rules, not to mention the fact that a lot of musicians that use these chord symbols have no idea what figured bass even is...

[prometheus]

There are two ways. Give the figured bass or just add '1st inv' or '2nd inv' etc.

[oguzcan]

About slash chords in jazz...
The inversions are written in that way for the bass player. Generally, pianists and guitarist don't play the bass notes so that the bass player can play the line he wants. Instead of making bass player count the 3rd of the G chord they write G/B. It's not a good notation in my opinion too, though.

[jlh]

... or just add '1st inv' or '2nd inv' etc.

That's something I have yet to see in published music.