I just realized what my problem was. The RHS is JUST with respect to time, not x or y or anything. That's not the laplacian...
Lets just imagine this thread never happened, haha! Thanks for your help.
Since the laplacian is the second partial derivative, you can write the expression as:
Laplacian of E = (1/c^2)*Laplacian of E
I don't see how you can multiply by a scalar and still get the Laplacian of E back or why it is written as a second derivative instead of the Laplacian. That is...
I'm not understanding something here. Maxwell's wave equation is:
Laplacian of E = (1/c^2) * second partial of E
(sorry, I don't know how to write symbols)
But the second partial derivative is the Laplacian. So how can you scale the laplacian of E by a number and get the laplacian of E as...
I think I found the experiment. You were referring to C, CP, and CPT violation right? I haven't studied that yet. Perhaps next year when I take quantum. Thanks for the info.