I make no apology for presenting the Biblical and only biblical view as it is relevant to the discussion and I will speak from what I know - not ignorance.
Subject to the fact that you actually speak from what you believe rather than what you "know", I see no reason at all for you not to do so; to do otherwise would, after all, be dishonest and misleading.
I do wonder mr Hinton how the second coming of Jesus can be only for Christians and not relevant to those of other persuasions?
I didn't say that it would, in my view, what i suggested is that certain Christians seem to imply that it will be so, simply by "virtue" (if one could call it such) of the very fact that it is Jesus Christ, rather than any of the other prophets or rligious movement founders, who shall "come again"; now that's fine for them as far as it goes, because they are, after all, Christians - but, by implication, it means that only the founder of the
Christian faith will come again. For the record, what I actually wrote was
"...what you are writing about appears to be intended to cover the entire world and the whole of mankind, yet it is written from a Christian perspective only. Let us momentarily assume that all that you predict (with particular reference to the notion of a "second coming of Christ") actually comes about; when it does so, how do you perceive that all the Muslims, Zoroastrians, Sikhs, Hindus, etc. are supposed to respond to what would effectively be tantamount to an event that would indirectly claim a kind of overall superiority for Christianity?"and by it I meant to ask you how you believe that followers of those other religious movements should be expected to respond to the notion that such as "second coming" is open only to Christan and expected by His followers.
He says the world will be done aways with and that God shall judge the living and the dead _ thats ALL the living and all the dead - read EVERYBODY. Therefore it is an issue which concerns each of us individually. The bible also happens to be the principle source dealling with this issue in depth.
OK - but then you write
There is really no doubt over Jesus being the messiah - at his baptism God gave the very testimony of his holy spirit resting on him and he said this is my son in whom im well pleased...which clearly relates to the obedience Jesus is showing to the father in walking out the road of suffering to make atonement for sin.. To save his people (the messiah).
So do you expect that Sikhs - or indeed Zoroastrians (whose religion is older than christianty) should simply accept without question that Jesus and his movement comes first because Jesus Himself is the only one that than come a second time (according to the Christian scriptures that you cite?).
By the way mary said I have never known a man...To me that clearly says virgin although the origional word used is maiden...In those days maiden meant virgin they werent as promiscous in the jewish culture of her day.. Some reason like you were stoned for sleeping around etc!!
Or maybe you only slept around when you were stoned? Sorry - bad joke! Ignore that. No, in an earlier post, "prometheus" already drew attention to what he and others believe is a mistranslation here - and you seem also to accept such a mistranslation as a possibility; the problem is, of course, that - as well you know - great myth and legend has been created and promoted around a literal understanding of "virgin birth" for the sole purpose of lending the birth of Jesus some kind of mystical uniqueness, which I find to be deeply suspect and, frankly, bordering on the repellent. Neither the life nor the works of Jesus Christ ever did require such cyncial PR as this, for they stand on their own two feet, just as Jesus Himself did. If we take literally that Mary had "never known a man" in the sense that this is generally understood, that's fine; all we have to do to rid ourselves of this "virgin birth" nonsense is accept this as meaning that Mary may have conceived Jesus Christ on her first time - i.e., she had never "known a man"
before - i.e. she was a "maiden" before the occasion which gave rise to her conception. Easy. Case closed. But just think how easy it would have been to tweak such a claim to mean what some Christians believe it to mean (i.e. the circumstances enabling a "virgin birth")!
Best,
Alistair