If this is correct, all a pianist controls is the point in time a hammer hits the string, the speed it hits the string, and the point damping of the string is released before the string is struck. Tone is simply a consequence of velocity, damping and interference between notes.
Also there are experiments that have shown that different rates of acceleration can change the hammer's state.
Some pianists stamp on a pedal noisily
The-pre existing movement of the string when the hammer hits it at velocity Y will influence tone (and presumably rebound) the most after velocity.
The different ways of pressing the note will dramatically change the interval between key arriving at height X, and note hitting string with velocity Y, or in other words, how early the damper for that note is released for a given hammer velocity Y.
I don't find that at all obvious...Dramatically? I can see how, in principle, it might slightly alter it - but so what? What's going to happen in the few milliseconds of undamped existence? And if the pedal's down this effect vanished completely.
cannot rule out the possibility that the pianist's touch may have an influence on the character of the piano tone. As regards the initial "thump" it seems rather clear that it contributes to the character of the note,
while an actual influence on the tone character via the hammer motion has not been verified yet.
You can also play one note, while holding another note down without striking the string and listen to the difference. ...Even if other notes are not sounded. I wonder if any piano composers use that effect.
Thanks for the link to the Swedish article. Lots of interesting stuff there, though not many actual numbers. In addition, note the following quotes from it: - but to what extent is not evaluated, nor is any variation with touch type investigated.- in other words it's still at the hypothesis stage.
There are none. That's Matthay's theory.
Sure- but if you compared both sides, this would be vastly closer to a "proof" of tone than anything the other camp have ever provided to "prove" tone is impossible. Seeing as there are perfectly credible explanations of what could cause it and make it audible (that are casually omitted from explanations, in favour of obviously simplified "physics"), I think the onus is on the latter group.
Very few people have ever seriously claimed that tone is actually _impossible_. Most, like me, simply question its importance, compared with the vastly greater influence of relative loudness. Obviously it's a bit of an academic exercise anyway, but an interesting one for a few nerds!And as in hi-fi (a field about which I know far too much ), the onus is on anyone who espouses an armchair hypothesis to back it up with experimental evidence. 'Perfectly credible' explanations are all very well but we need some actual magnitude information, a few hard facts.For instance, this thing about hammer shanks flexing - makes sense, sure, but how _far_ is the head going to move? - and how much difference will it therefore make to the sound?
More energy reaches the keybed than the hammer.
You simply can't avoid the key hitting the bottom, though you can vary how hard (to be precise: with how much momentum, including that of the finger/hand/arm) it hits. However, if you do simple Newtonian maths on the weights and velocities involved you'll find that just about the best imaginable case has roughly equal kinetic energy going into hammer and keybed.
This is literally true under most circumstances, I believe. But so what? In detail and in cases of different 'approach' to the key, so what? How are we going to demonstrate this experimentally? Supposing you and I met in a room with a piano and some recording equipment - could you demonstrate these differences so that I can record them and put them on this (or some) website?
How are we going to demonstrate this experimentally? Supposing you and I met in a room with a piano and some recording equipment - could you demonstrate these differences so that I can record them and put them on this (or some) website?