Derek...
You wrote
I am suspicious of those who say they truly enjoy Xenakis...music like this has been artificially created by those who for whatever reason, have abandoned musical simplicity in favor of intellectualism and feeling superior to others.
I replied
Are you really telling us that there is no intellectual thrust behind the great works of Bach, Beethoven, Chopin and Brahms? And are you suggesting that The Art of Fugue, the C# minor Quartet, the Fourth Ballade and the C major piano trio embrace "simplicity"? - for if you do, you intellectual capacity must be far greater than mine!
Well - what of this intellectual thrust? Is it inherent in those works or is it applied artificially? and, if you believe the former but consider Xenakis's intellectuality to come under the latter category, can you identify, demonstrate and prove the difference?
In response to your remarks about the alleged "naturalness" of the 7-note (i.e. diatonic) scale, I wrote
If one is going to talk about "naturalness" in terms of intonation, one would be better off citing the harmonic series of which, of course, none of the upper partials coincide precisely with the equal temperament system to which we have been accustomed over the past 300 years or so in which the octave is divided into 12 equal intervals. Whilst it was obviously necessary to "bend" some of these in order to force them into a harmonic language built upon some of them, this is just what Skryabin did in his later works, his so-called "mystic chord" being a six-note formulation from them.
On the same topic, I also wrote
Of course nothing has ever really been "ingrained" in that way at any time other than artificially at the hands of people who are indeed unadventurous and accordingly complacent and who wish somehow to preserve certain aspects of musical methodology and language in aspic without apparently either realising or caring that this is not what Bach, Beethoven, Chopin, Brahms et al ever did.
What is your take on all of this now?
"Indutrial" wrote
"Red River Valley"...was composed by some yokel 100s of years ago and a lot of people liked it, so it's popular now.
Now...Xenakis is doing the same thing as that anonymous yokel did except he's doing it in terms of the time period he lives in, i.e. he's putting notes together according to whatever his own instincts are and with the tools at his disposal. AND he remembered to write his name on the first page! Just because the music doesn't make you want to make you run to grab your harmonica or use it as a cell-phone ring doesn't make it any less valid.
I replied
The yokel of yesteryear would not have given much, if any, thought to the place of his invention in any kind of tradition to be passed on from generation to generation, still less preserved by being written down with the opportunity that comes with such written recording to identify the originator on the script; he/she would instead have been concerned primarily with the immediacy of his/her expression. It is also worth remembering that the tools at the disposal of such composers as Liszt, Bartók, Kodály and Ligeti included folk music but their use of it - or rather response to it, since the results were often suggestive rather than literal - was part of a process of expanding the expressive capacity of music and relating the past to the present and future (although there have also been plenty of other ways of doing that, of course).
What do you have to say about this?
"Indutrial" wrote
To lambast a composer for using intellectual methodology to compose is a ludicrous platform to stand on. Since the glory days of anonymous folk tunes, Dionysian chants...the human world has made considerable progress in delineating the realm of the individual. To knock someone for making music in that context no matter what the result is anachronistic and backwards. A person exists inside of their own head. Any social existence that is perceived (norms, ideals, standards, anxiety-driven morals) don't hold a candle to whatever that individual's standards dictate. Xenakis did what Xenakis wanted to do. If you want to clip his wings and demean his legacy by making it some immaterial matter of right-and-wrong or black-and-white, is anything really being accomplished?
I replied
It can work both ways, too, though. In the UK, towards the end of the 1960s there developed a régime at BBC under the aegis of Sir William Glock that did a very necessary thing in fervently promoting many of the latest developments in music in the remainder of Europe in a dyed-in-the-wool Britain largely ignorant of much of it, yet the downside of this was that certain English composers got sidelined for some time, with the result that certain ways of expression were being almost overturned and replaced by quite different ones instead of being added to; that was, in one sense, a kind of "clipping of wings", too. Things have moved on a lot since then.
What are your comments on this?
I wrote
Perhaps of all composers, Xenakis appears to have responded more to his own demands and questionings than to anything in his musical past (Webern, Boulez, Stockhausen and Nono, for example, reflected their roots and heritages far more clearly from time to time) but, if that was what made Xenakis what he was, then that was as it should have been.
Do you disagree? If so, why? and how should it have been instead?
Returning to the issue of intellectualism, I wrote
I defy you to prove that over-indulgence in any kind of intellectualism is the sole or even principal reason behind most people's dislike of Xenakis's music. Most untrained listeners would not be made aware of any intellectualism in his music merely by listening to it.
Can you prove it? And would you?...
I continued
You write of intellectualism "going on for its own sake", which appears to suggest that you believe that Xenakis worked in such a way as to produce pieces to which the only conceivable and intended response was an intellectual one; I can assure you that any such notion would have been more repulsive to Xenakis than his music is repulsive to you. Who, in any case, is to determine - and how and by what standards - that any intellectual thrust behind a piece of music is or is not "going on for its own sake"? - i.e. that in Die Kunst der Fuge it's acceptably inherent whereas in Synaphai it is not; you clearly draw this distinction, yet you omit to tell us by what means you arrive at such a conclusion.
Do you believe - and, if so, why? - that Xenakis wrote in such a way for such a reason and what do you have to say about the assessment and valuation of intellectualism in composition?
I added
This problem leads us to another issue on which you lightly touch but which you then conveniently avoid - and that is the motivations of the composer. You have written of composers deliberately making music outrageously dissonant as though they do so just to be different or draw attention to that difference; should one assume from that and other similar comments you make that the integrity that I ascribe to Xenakis is something that you would wholeheartedly deny? If so, I would ask again on what specific grounds you would do so.
I'm still asking...
I wrote
one does not think immediately or primarily about intellectual disciplines when listening to Bach, Xenakis or Chopin, but just look at what went on in those composers' workshops! Chopin's remarkably early maturity didn't preclude him from making an in-depth study of counterpoint and older music towards the end of his life; Schubert did the same thing, actually - and the music of both composers broadened and deepened as a consequence. I neither know nor care to whom you refer with your vague term "these modern guys", but your stuff about overthrowing rules and making things hideous for the sake of so doing simply does not stand up. Even Xenakis, whose work perhaps has the least obvious connections with the past of any composer in history, did not seek the overthrow of Brahms or the breaking of past "rules" so much as the making of rules that would help him write in the way that he wanted to write. Would you have composers all writing tonal, melodic music along mainly 19th century lines under a belief that deliberately to go against such an aim is to "overthrow rules" and create" hideous din"? In other words, are you genuinely seeking the expressive stagnation of Western music? No one writes "reams of justification" about Xenakis either, although much has indeed been written about the compositional processes and working methods of both Xenakis and Chopin, which is not necessarily the same thing at all.
Plenty to answer there, I'd have thought; what is the rôle of intellectuality in the creative process, who are "these modern guys", what are the real attitudes to rules, their adherence and their overthrow and what of this justification of which you write?
You wrote
I used to dislike all modern, atonal, dissonant music. I've warmed up to some of it (and write it, often). I enjoy Charles Ives, Keith Jarrett, Stravinsky
I replied
Most of the music of those three is tonal! Atonality is usually relative. So is dissonance. All depends to a large extent upon the experiences of the listener and the extent of his/her familiarity with what they are listening to at any given time. I can remember listening to a Mozart piano concerto for the first time when I was about 15 and reacting in a way broadly similar to the "funny modern music" reaction that we've all observed in people; this was because I was wholly unfamiliar with that kind of writing and it sounded strange to me after a diet of music in which the oldest had been the ninth symphony of Mahler...
What do you say about this?
You wrote
But every time I listen I just think: there's nothing for the brain to grab onto here, at all. Maybe that is my failing, I don't know.
I replied
I am pleased that at least you DO listen, that you do occasionally think and that you are also prepared to consider the possibility that your reactions may in part be due to a failure of your brain to engage. No one is expecting you necessarily to want to listen to the music of Xenakis - it's certainly not for everyone, but then nor is that of Mozart! All I would ask is that, when you do listen to Xenakis's music, you approach it with no prior prejudices and simply ask yourself afterwards (a) what effect does this music have on me? and (b) what motivated the composer to express his thoughts in this particular way?
So what is your stance on this now?
You wrote
I do in fact find that making sounds which strike me as similar to Xenakis, Schoenberg, and others, is remarkably easy compared to writing a really good melody using a 7 tone scale (or perhaps a really good melody using something more dissonant, like polytonality, or pantonality, or whatever else---though I never think about these terms actively when I am writing).
I replied
The very fact of your citing Xenakis and Schönberg in juxtaposition reveals the sheer paucity of your thoughts on the music of the past century or so. These two composers were just SO different from one another!... Did not Schönberg demonstrate amply his ability both to write long, sweeping tonal melodies and to take Lisztian thematic/motivic transformational processes and Brahmsian form developments to a hitherto unprecedented degree? Do you suppose that Schönberg would have been able, let alone motivated, to develop his system of composing using twelve tones (etc.) had he not first been steeped in the traditions of Western tonal music? And what do you make of his composing his Chamber Symphony No. 2 in E flat minor AFTER establishing that system?
I can see three question marks there...
I continued
If you think that writing "like" Xenakis or Schönberg is comparatively "easy" (not that there'd be any reason to do so other than as some kind of exercise), why was it so hard even for Xenakis and Schönberg?! And why do you bang on so incessantly and insistently about "melody" when it is but one of the constituent parts of music (albeit one of vital and immense importance)? Likewise, what's with this obsession with major and minor scales? - these established themselves over many decades from a time when they were but two of a entire series of modes, so should one assume your trenchant adherence to the notion of the superiority of major and minor modes as indicative that you frown upon medieval and Renaissance music just as much as some "modern" music just because they do not prioritise these modes?
There's three more there.
I then wrote
One of your problems here is evidently that of what you deem to be acceptable and unacceptable musical language; another, which is closely connected to it, appears to be that of what does and does not constitute acceptable musical expression. Here are some questions arising from this.
Has it not occurred to you that the new linguistic departures over the past 100 years or so have never overthrown, or sought to overthrow, those that have gone before?
Can you cite any composer in the past 100 years who has genuinely and deliberately sought to compose music specifically to replace, rather than enhance, our library of available music?
Have you thought about the rise of equal temperament around 300 years ago which, whilst arguably not quite as different from what had gone before as Schönberg's "system" was from Brahms, say, actually did come eventually to "replace" what had gone before, in that it became the standard for Western music for many years thereafter?
On the subject of intellectualism, have you ever made an in-depth study of 16th century counterpoint? - if so, you will surely be all too well aware of the immense intellectual disciplines involved in such writing and would accordingly accept that these are in some sense analogous to the disciplines in Schönberg's serial procedures.
As to dissonance, what of the grinding dissonance towards the close of Chopin's Scherzo No. 1 in B minor? - a chord containing E#s, F#s and Gs that, not content with pounding it out fortissimo, the composer then repeats eight times just to hammer it home.
And what of the passages in Tristan und Isolde and, before that, many instances in Chopin from his early piano trio onwards, that threaten not to undermine tonality altogether but certainly to destabilise it?
Are these and other things not all part of an ever-expanding expressive language?
There's a whole series of questions there!
Over to you...
Best,
Alistair